"Hand foot and mouth disease on a child" by 1006will is licensed under CC BY-SA 4.0.
"Hand Foot Mouth Disease Adult 36Years" by KlatschmohnAcker is licensed under CC BY-SA 3.0.
"Hand foot and mouth disease on a child" by 1006will is licensed under CC BY-SA 4.0.
"Hand Foot Mouth Disease Adult 36Years" by KlatschmohnAcker is licensed under CC BY-SA 3.0.
Progression of Mpox (Monkeypox) skin lesions.
"Monkeypox lesion progression" by Unknown authorUnknown author is licensed under CC BY 4.0.
A 55-year-old man who recently underwent coronary artery bypass graft surgery, developed fever and chills on postoperative day 3. Blood cultures grew coagulase-negative Staphylococcus, identified as Staphylococcus lugdunensis, which is sensitive to oxacillin and vancomycin. He also has a new systolic murmur and a newly prolonged PR interval on ECG. Repeated blood culture is negative.
Which of the following you should recommend now?
No further work up is needed
Treat with oxacillin for one week
Treat with vancomycin for one week
Order an echocardiogram
Staphylococcus lugdunensis: Though a coagulase-negative staphylococcus (CoNS), it behaves more like Staphylococcus aureus in terms of virulence and can cause endocarditis.
Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus saprophyticus: Typically less virulent and more commonly associated with indwelling catheter infections rather than causing significant systemic illness like endocarditis.
Staphylococcus pseudintermedius: Primarily an animal pathogen.
Staphylococcus argenteus: Rare and less commonly associated with such presentations.
The clinical scenario of a new heart murmur, systemic symptoms, and positive blood cultures for a virulent coagulase-negative staphylococcus strongly points towards Staphylococcus lugdunensis as the most likely cause.
Animal exposure for agents of pneumonia:
Cattle, cats: coxiella burnetii
Birds: Chlamydophilia psittaci
Birds: Cryptococcus neoformans
Bat, bird droppings: Histoplasma capsulatum
Mouse urine & feces: Hantavirus
A 34-year-old woman with a history of three weeks of swelling and tenderness over the dorsum of the left hand, pain, redness, and swelling in her right ankle, intermittent pain in shoulder and knee joints, and a rash on her lower extremities. Here are the key points and findings:
Unhoused: Staying in shelters and homes of acquaintances in downtown Los Angeles.
Substance Use: Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily, consumes four to six alcoholic beverages daily, occasionally smokes marijuana, and occasionally smokes methamphetamine. No injection drug use.
Sexual History: Several intimate partners in the past year.
Clinical Presentation: Swelling and tenderness in multiple joints, rash on lower extremities, and elevated inflammatory markers.
Risk Factors: Multiple sexual partners and substance use.
Laboratory Findings: Elevated leukocyte count, neutrophilia, elevated ESR, and CRP.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae is known to cause disseminated infections, presenting with symptoms such as tenosynovitis, dermatitis, and polyarthralgia, which matches the patient's symptoms.
In February, 27-year-old man is seen for fever, myalgias, arthralgias, and headache of one-day duration. Two days before he became ill, he returned from a skiing vacation with friends in California.
They stayed in a cabin in the woods that had been uninhabited for many months. Rodent droppings were evident in the cabin when they arrived. He has been taking NSAIDS for muscle pain precipitated by skiing.
Exam is notable for fever and meningismus.
A CSF exam shows 400 white blood cells, 97% lymphocytes. The CSF protein is 98, and the glucose is 30 with simultaneous blood glucose of 88; Gram stain is negative.
Which one of the following is the most likely cause of his illness?
NSAID-induced aseptic meningitis
Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus
Enterovirus
Hantavirus
Has anyone heard of chronic recurrent multifocal osteomyelitis?
Which of the following organisms cause sepsis in splenectomized patients?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Neisseria meningitidis
Capnocytophaga canimorsus
Babesia
Kidney-shaped gram intracellular negative organisms consistent with Neisseria gonorrhea @Everyone
Buzz words in infectious disease, Let's play this:
If I say "rabbit".. you say "Tularemia"
If I say "Bull's eye rash".. you say ____
If I say "chitterlings or chitlins".. you say ____
If I say "streptococcus bovis".. you say ____
Please try to answer 2,3, and 4
If you say spaghetti and meatballs, I would say Malasezzia Furfur (tinea versicolor)
Rahul B. Ganatra, MD, MPH, reviewing Advani SD et al. JAMA Netw Open 2024 Mar 4
Despite guideline recommendations against antibiotics for asymptomatic bacteriuria (ASB; NEJM JW Emerg Med Jun 2019 and Clin Infect Dis 2019; 68:e83), antibiotic treatment for patients with ASB and nonspecific symptoms remains common. In this retrospective study, researchers estimated the prevalence of bacteremia from a urinary source (i.e., isolation of identical organisms from blood and urine cultures collected within 3 days of each other) among 11,600 hospitalized noncritically ill adults with ASB at 68 hospitals in Michigan; data were obtained by standardized review of individual charts and were not simply administrative data. Patients with specific signs or symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI) and patients who received antibiotics for UTI before blood culture collection were excluded.
Key findings were as follows:
Among all patients…
For each image, please identify whether it is representing streptococci, staphylococci, and enterococci?
A 19-year-old young woman has had a slowly progressive ascending paralysis over the last two days. She can no longer walk. One week before she developed neurologic symptoms, she had an episode of fever, cramping abdominal pain, and diarrhea that lasted three days.
Which one of the following was the most likely cause of her gastrointestinal illness?
Shigella sonnei
Clostridium botulinum
HSV
Enterovirus
Guillain-Barre is the most common cause of acute neuromuscular paralysis in the world. Many cases follow an obvious antecedent infection and many such infections have been described. One of the most common of these, if not the most common, is gastroenteritis due to Campylobacter jejuni. Other precipitating infections include cytomegalovirus, Epstein-Barr virus, HIV, and Zika virus. The presumptive mechanism for this syndrome is that the antecedent infection evokes an autoimmune response that cross-reacts with peripheral nerve components because of shared epitopes (i.e., molecular mimicry), resulting in an acute ascending demyelinating polyneuropathy. This immune response is directed against the myelin or the axon of peripheral nerves.
Shigella produces febrile diarrhea and may be associated with seizures but not a Guillain-Barre like illness.
Clostridium botulinum is a very rare cause of GI symptoms other than constipation as part of infant botulism; botulism is a descending paralytic illness.
HSV causes meningitis or encephalitis but is not associated with a Guillain-Barré- like syndrome. Enteroviruses can cause diarrhea and aseptic meningitis but not Guillain-Barré syndrome, although there is mounting evidence that enterovirus D68 is associated with acute flaccid paralysis in children.
@Everyone
A 32-year-old woman is diagnosed with bacterial meningitis due to Streptococcus gallolyticus (S. bovis). She has two pet dogs and had lived in rural parts of Southeast Asia as a Peace Corp volunteer over a decade prior.
Generally she has been in excellent health, but two weeks before the onset of meningitis she sustained head trauma as the result of a bicycle accident.
Five days before she presented with meningitis she was started on high dose corticosteroids to treat a severe case of poison ivy acquired while gardening.
Which one of the following is the most likely underlying problem that led to her meningitis?
Colon cancer
Strongyloidiasis
CSF leak
Common variable hypogammaglobulinemia
Strongyloidiasis is common in Southeast Asia, where she had worked, and in many other parts of the world. Infection is acquired by exposing skin to larvae in fecally contaminated water. Infection may be asymptomatic, and because the roundworm may complete its life cycle within the human host, infection may persist for years to decades.
Steroids may result in dissemination of worms that leave the GI tract carrying along with them GI flora. This may result in Gram-negative rod bacteremia, and less commonly bacteremia due to other gut organisms including Streptococcus gallolyticus or Enterococcus. Meningitis due to these bowel organisms may occur either due to direct bacteremia or larval invasion of the CNS.
S. gallolyticus bacteremia and endocarditis may be associated with underlying bowel disease including colon cancer, and colonoscopy should be considered in patients with S. gallolyticus bacteremia. However, this patient’s young age and the onset with corticosteroids make strongyloidiasis more likely.
CSF leak is a high risk factor for bacterial meningitis, but most cases are due to pneumococci or viridans streptococci; S. gallolyticus would be very unlikely.
Common variable hypogammaglobulinemia is typically associated with a history of recurrent respiratory tract infections, a history absent in this case.
Accidental ingestion of dog fleas may result in human infection with the dog tapeworm, Dipylidium caninum, but meningitis is not seen.
@Everyone
A 55-year-old CMV seronegative woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus and end stage renal disease received a cadaveric renal allograft from a CMV positive donor five months prior. She is on valganciclovir prophylaxis.
She now presents with decreasing renal function despite increased immunosuppression with tacrolimus and prednisone given for suspected graft rejection. Tacrolimus levels are in the therapeutic range. Ultrasound did not show obstruction of the implanted kidney. You are consulted about possible infectious causes of renal failure. She is afebrile and routine urinalysis with bacterial culture is unremarkable.
Your preferred approach to establish the cause of the renal failure is which of the following:
0% Quantitative urine PCR for BK virus
0% Quantitative urine PCR for adenovirus
0%Renal biopsy
0% Blood for quantitative CMV viral load
The principal concern in this patient is possible BK virus nephropathy.
Although quantitative PCR of plasma or urine has been advocated for diagnosis, the most reliable diagnostic measure is demonstration of the characteristic basophilic inclusions in renal tubular cells on renal biopsy. Seeing these tubular cells in urine cytology, “decoy cells” is too common to be diagnostic, though absence of these cells suggests against the diagnosis.
BK, a polyoma virus, cannot be cultured by routine measures and large quantities can be found by PCR of urine from immunosuppressed patients without nephropathy. Blood may be positive for BK virus but cannot distinguish between BK nephropathy and rejection, which would be treated differently (reduction versus intensification of immunosuppression).
JC virus causes progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy, not nephropathy.
Adenovirus would not be expected to cause azotemia in renal transplant recipients.
CMV is extremely unlikely while on prophylaxis and very rarely causes kidney injury.
A Diagnostic Approach to Fungal Pneumonia - CHEST (chestnet.org)
A very good review article for fugal pneumonias
A 26-year-old woman who emigrated to the United States 5 years ago from the Sudan was admitted to a hospital with pre-eclampsia. An incidental finding on admission was a painless rounded, raised lesion on the palm of her right hand. There was no surrounding erythema or edema. This lesion had been present for two weeks.
She had not left the United States since emigrating from Sudan, and had had no such lesions before.
Through an interpreter, it was determined that three weeks previously she had obtained a sheep's head from a halal butcher to be used in cooking. While preparing the head she accidently cut her hand with a spicule of bone from the front part of the sheep's face. She subsequently developed the described lesion.
The most likely cause of this lesion would be:
0%Anthrax
0%Brucella
0%Mycobacterium ulcerans
0%Orf
ORF is a poxvirus (specifically a parapoxvirus) that causes painless lesions at inoculation sites about 14-21 days after inoculation and which ultimately resolve spontaneously over 4-8 weeks. It does not typically cause systemic symptoms or disseminate except in unusual cases in immunosuppressed hosts. There is no therapy.
The patient has a painless ulcerated nodule. The differential might include anthrax, leishmania, or Buruli ulcer: patients are not necessarily systemically ill with any of these entities (with cutaneous anthrax, however, systemic manifestations may develop). This woman had been in the United States for 5 years, making Leishmania and anthrax unlikely. Anthrax is seen primarily in the United States in bison, not domestic animals. Buruli ulcers, due to M. ulcerans, are acquired in Africa, not the United States.
Orf is common in herds of goats and sheep: contact with oral lesions of animals, or with milking them, can lead to this type of lesion. Presumably this woman had contact with an oral lesion in the sheep head and the virus was then inoculated into her skin by the minor trauma.
Similar cases can occur with goats, deer, or with elk. See the lesion in the goat oropharynx below.
A 57-year-old man seeks attention for intermittent fevers that have been present for more than 35 years. The febrile episodes began many years ago when he was a college student, continued to occur every one to two months, and last 4-6 days.
During febrile episodes, he experiences extreme fatigue and “can’t do anything.” Between episodes he feels well and is a productive businessman. His only associated symptom or sign is a rash that typically occurs as a large, red, irregularly defined patch on his right buttock that extends down onto his posterior thigh.
During the early years of his illness, he sought medical attention repeatedly and was hospitalized twice. No specific abnormalities were found and no diagnosis was made. Laboratory studies were always normal except for a persistently elevated sedimentation rate.
After about ten years, he decided he would “just have to live with it” and stopped seeing physicians for…
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
0%Familial Mediterranean Fever
0%Cyclic neutropenia
0%TRAPS (tumor necrosis factor receptor ass. periodic syndrome
0%Hyperimmunoglobulin D syndrome
@Everyone TRAPS is a rare, autosomal dominant disorder in which there is a defect in the gene that encodes the receptor for tumor necrosis factor. Patients may present from infancy to the 50s. Recurrent fevers over many years occurring every 5-8 weeks and lasting several days, in the absence of any evidence of infection are typical.
Other features that may be present include myalgias, conjunctivitis, periorbital edema, abdominal pain and monoarticular arthritis. Rash is common, usually manifesting as one or several erythematous patches that may spread distally down an extremity. A minority of patients will develop amyloidosis.
Familial Mediterranean Fever (FMF), an autosomal recessive disorder, may also present in adult life and is characterized by episodic attacks of fever accompanied by polyserositis with abdominal pain, pleurisy, and sometimes arthritis. Rash is very rare in FMF.
In cyclic neutropenia monthly episodes of profound neutropenia occur lasting about a week. Diagnosis typically is made in childhood. The condition appears to be more common among African American children.
Hyperimmunoglobulin D, an autosomal recessive periodic fever syndrome, is characterized by attacks of fever accompanied by chills, enlarged cervical nodes and sore throat, aphthous ulcers, and a pleomorphic rash; IgD levels are elevated.
Chronic granulomatous disease is a disorder of neutrophils in which intracellular killing of certain organisms is impaired leading to recurrent infections, not unexplained fever.
A 34-year-old male sees you because he was recently informed that a partner he had unprotected sex with last month has been diagnosed with HIV. You would advise this patient to initiate ongoing antiretroviral therapy
A) immediately, because HIV testing is not necessary prior to initiation
B) at the time of diagnosis of HIV infection
C) when his CD4 cell count drops to < 200 cells/ μL
D) when his CD4 cell count drops to <500 cells/μ L
E) when he develops an AIDS-defining illness
ANSWER: B
Antiretroviral therapy (ART) should be prescribed at the time of diagnosis of HIV infection unless the patient has expressed a desire to not initiate treatment.
ART should not be delayed until the CD4 cell count drops to a predetermined level or until an AIDS-defining illness occurs.
It is recommended to initiate prophylaxis for Pneumocystis pneumonia when the CD4 cell count drops below 200 cells/μ L. when he develops an AIDS-defining illness.
A 29 y/o HIV positive male presents with dyspnea, dry cough and right sided chest pain since yesterday. The chest pain is worse when he takes a deep breath or coughs. He has chills and night sweats for the past week, which was attributed to the flu. He has been hospitalised several times in the past for heroin overdose. 5 months ago, he was admitted and treated for aspiration pneumonia. Last year, he was also admitted for cocaine overdose complicated by tonic-clonic seizures. His most recent CD4 count is 190/mm³. He has no drug allergies.
In the ED, he appears slightly uncomfortable and has shallow breathing.
BP 105/70 mmHg
HR 110 bpm and regular
RR 22 bpm
SpO2 95% on room air
The answer over here is a transthoracic echocardiogram.
Patient most likely has acute right sided IE. Although left sided IE is more common in the general population, those who use IV drugs most commonly develop right sided IE affecting the tricuspid valve.
Staph aureus is the most common cause >50% of the cases. Presentation is typically acute and characterized by high fevers. They often have pleuritic chest pain and cough d/t septic pulmonary emboli, a complication that occurs in 75% cases of right sided IE. The emboli appear on CXR as multiple nodular opacities. Cardiac murmur is sometimes absent in right sided IE and peripheral signs of IE are also not present.
So initially a TTE is done, followed by TEE if indicated.
Patient is at risk for Pneumocystis pneumonia and a bronchoscopy with BAL is used for diagnosis. However, that presentation is usually subacute (3 weeks, low grade fever, non productive cough) and CXR usually shows interstitial infiltrates rather than nodular opacities.
63M with significant PMHx of dilated cardiomyopathy and implanted cardiac resynchronization therapy pacemaker was admitted for general weakness, fevers and the skin lesions found below. Vitals in the ED were 82/58, HR 111, 38.8C. Labs revealed WBC 15, BUN/Cr 38/1.63 (previously normal baseline). CXR was within normal limits, urine was sterile. Began on IV ceftriaxone and vancomycin. Fevers persisted and blood cultures were negative. What is the next test/procedure you'd like to order and why?
Hi all, thanks for your answers! Patient underwent a TEE and was found to have three hypoechoic formations on the pacemaker electrodes. One month ago on TEE there was only one hypoechoic formation. He had to undergo pacemaker explantation.
Which one of the following patients should receive antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent infective endocarditis prior to having dental work that will include periodontal manipulation?
A) A 6-year-old male with an unrepaired atrial septal defect
B) A 32-year-old female with mitral valve prolapse with significant regurgitation
C) A 52-year-old male with a past history of a transcatheter aortic valve replacement
D) A 60-year-old male with atrial fibrillation due to rheumatic mitral valve disease
E) A 70-year-old female with hemodynamically significant aortic stenosis/aortic insufficiency
ANSWER: C
Of the patients listed, only the patient with a transcatheter-implanted aortic valve is at increased risk of infective endocarditis (IE) associated with dental procedures.
Any patient with a history of valve repair or replacement that involves prosthetic material is at increased risk for IE, but even those with significant valvular disease do not benefit from prophylaxis.
Certain patients with congenital heart disease should also receive prophylaxis, but an isolated atrial septal defect is not associated with an increased risk of IE after dental procedures.
An 83-year-old man was admitted to hospital after being unable to cope alone at home with an episode of diarrhoea and vomiting. His past medical history included hypertension, bilateral total hip replacements, and early dementia. He did not smoke but drank 30–40 units of alcohol each week. His medication on admission was amlodipine and donepezil.
He improved with 48 hours of intravenous fluids, at which point the cannula was removed because pus was noticed at the insertion site. His discharge home was delayed because he became increasingly confused.
His temperature was 35.9°C, heart rate 95 beats per minute, blood pressure 105/60 mmHg (having been previously 150/80 mmHg), and respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute. His feet were cold with pitting
oedema around his ankles.
Investigations:
Hb 113 g/L (130–180)
Sepsis may present insidiously, especially in the elderly and immunocompromised. A wide range of symptoms and signs may be associated with infection (including those traditionally thought of as markers of sepsis, such as a high white cell count or C reactive protein); for example, altered mental state, fluid retention, ileus, tachypnoea, and poor peripheral perfusion. In this case a probable source of infection (the intravenous cannula) can be identified. In association with this, SIRS is present (tachycardia and low white cell count) as well as thrombocytopenia, altered mental status, hyperglycaemia in the absence of diabetes, and coagulopathy; hence, sepsis is the most likely diagnosis. Blood cultures should be drawn and broad-spectrum antibiotics started to cover likely pathogens (staphylococcus and streptococcus in this situation). None of the other options can explain the full clinical picture although they may have a contribution to his confusion (especially alcohol withdrawal).
A 62-year-old man comes to the emergency department after "coughing up a 6-ounce cupful of blood." He describes about 3 days of increased yellowish sputum production associated with mild increase in dyspnea on exertion. On the previous 2 days he had slight blood streaking in the sputum. He has no prior history of hemoptysis. He has no fever, chills, weight loss, or night sweats.
His past medical history is significant for HIV and tuberculosis treated 12 years ago with directly observed therapy for 9 months. He is compliant with highly active antiretroviral therapy. He is an ex-IV drug user with a 50-pack-year history of tobacco use.
On examination, the patient is very anxious appearing with mild respiratory distress and some dried blood on his lips.
Pulse is 104/min, respirations are 20/min, and SaO, is 90% on room air. Lung examination shows mild diffuse wheezing. He coughs up an additional 25…
The Monod sign refers to the presence of gas surrounding a mycetoma, typically an aspergilloma, within a pre-existing pulmonary cavity. It is a distinct radiographic feature indicating a freely mobile mass within the cavity that can move when the patient's position changes, optimally observed when images are acquired in a prone position to allow the mass to shift to a gravity-dependent location. This sign should not be confused with the air crescent sign, which is associated with the recovery phase of angioinvasive aspergillosis and indicates an improvement in the patient's condition. Despite the specific implications of the Monod sign, in clinical practice, the term is not widely recognized, and the gas pattern around the mycetoma is often crescent-shaped. Consequently, the term air crescent sign is frequently used interchangeably to describe both phenomena, although they represent different pathological processes.
@Everyone
84 years old male with past medical history of COPD, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, prediabetes, left total hip arthroplasty 2015, prostate cancer s/p hormone/XRT, and prostate surgery complicated by DVT 2008. Patient recently had influenza infection and presented to ED on 2/14/2024 with a chief complaint of shortness of breath that has been gradually worsening for 3 weeks. His O2 saturation was in the high 80s, and he was placed on 2L NC on arrival to ED, which was transitioned to continuous BiPAP.
In the ED, vitals were as follows: Temp 36.9 °C (98.5 °F), HR 107, BP 107/65, RR 20, Sat 98 % on Nasal cannula. CMP was remarkable for glucose 143, albumin 3.0, total protein 6.2. CBC was remarkable for WBC 31.20, Hgb 9.3, HCT 29.3. Other notable labs: BNP 153, troponin 31.
CXR shows left upper lobe infiltrated with possible necrotizing process.
CTA of the chest ruled out…
If patients don't respond to antibiotics, drainage of the abscess is needed. Percutaneous transthoracic drainage is preferred for its simplicity and lower risk of spreading infection compared to transbronchial catheter drainage. Surgery is a last resort, only for abscesses that can't be drained or don't improve with less invasive methods.
Bilateral pneumonia